Why is Mikul raping Ilsa in question?
As the thread title says, I'm wondering why it's a matter of debate. I mean, he all but admits his guilt at the end, just before selling Geralt out. There's even a conversation there, where he tries to apologize and Geralt tells him to apologize to Ilsa, with him not saying anything against it.
Have I missed something somewhere? Does any new info come to light after it? I mean, besides the Salamandra thugs talking about raping Ilsa (which doesn't actually refute it - no one said she was just raped once. The ones egging Mikul on in Alvin's words might well have been the Salamandra thugs, for that matter). Meanwhile, the him apologizing, Geralt telling him to do so to Ilsa, him not retorting but just kinda agreeing ... that speaks for his guilt a lot more.
As the thread title says, I'm wondering why it's a matter of debate. I mean, he all but admits his guilt at the end, just before selling Geralt out. There's even a conversation there, where he tries to apologize and Geralt tells him to apologize to Ilsa, with him not saying anything against it.
Have I missed something somewhere? Does any new info come to light after it? I mean, besides the Salamandra thugs talking about raping Ilsa (which doesn't actually refute it - no one said she was just raped once. The ones egging Mikul on in Alvin's words might well have been the Salamandra thugs, for that matter). Meanwhile, the him apologizing, Geralt telling him to do so to Ilsa, him not retorting but just kinda agreeing ... that speaks for his guilt a lot more.
